Jeoncoup
Jeoncoup Jeoncoup
  • 02-06-2021
  • Mathematics
contestada

Why might you use the commutative property to multiply (-4) × 5?

​

Respuesta :

aishwaryasrivastava1
aishwaryasrivastava1 aishwaryasrivastava1
  • 02-06-2021

Answer:

answer will be same -20

Step-by-step explanation:

because (-4)×5 is same as 5×(-4)

Answer Link

Otras preguntas

Oscar's dog house is shaped like a tent. The slanted sides are both 5 feet long and the bottom of the house is 6 feet across. What is the height of his dog hou
penelope is adding fractions while taking a math test. What part of the brain is she using?
Which one is it am to sure ?
What is the quotient of 45 divided by 12?
Susan has the option of purchasing one of three products: Brand A, Brand B, or Brand C. Each costs twenty dollars. If she decides that Brand A meets her needs
If f(x) = x^2 - 3x, explain how to find f(-1.8)
Mike needs to write the primary objectives of a project in a project plan. In which section should he write them? A. scope B. Overview C. baselines D. Schedule
8. Sc. 2, Lines 1–8: Think about the purpose that comic relief serves. Why might Shakespeare have chosen to begin this scene with a light, humorous conversation
The proof for the product property of logarithms requires simplifying the expression logb(bx+y) to x + y. Which property is used to justify this step?
The Roman Empire had many trade routes. Some were sea routes across the Mediterranean and Black Seas, and some were land routes using Roman roads. According to